Seems fair to reduce supplier cost with the lens of encouraging domestic consumption, but do these count as trade subsidies (along with farmer payouts like the UK receives) with respect to WTO agreements and the international rules-based multilateral trading system, or has that all gone out the window now?
interesting question. My guess it would depend on the details of any trade agreement. I'm not an expert so take this with a grain of salt but I suspect access to capital would not be considered a violation as a general rule. But there is a lot of uncertainty in the mix right now.
Seems fair to reduce supplier cost with the lens of encouraging domestic consumption, but do these count as trade subsidies (along with farmer payouts like the UK receives) with respect to WTO agreements and the international rules-based multilateral trading system, or has that all gone out the window now?
interesting question. My guess it would depend on the details of any trade agreement. I'm not an expert so take this with a grain of salt but I suspect access to capital would not be considered a violation as a general rule. But there is a lot of uncertainty in the mix right now.